To Have And Have Not

Yesterday I made a post on Counter Social about the Film Noir classic “Another Man’s Poison” which stars Bette Davis, and I made the comment ‘Oh what a tangled web it”...wove? Weaved?

Well, I used “wove” since it is the correct past tense form of “weave” (unlike, for example, in a case where a car “weaved” in and out of traffic), but I think “weaved” would have worked better to emphasize my allusion to the maxim “Oh what a tangled web we weave, when first we practice to deceive.”

So when writing, is it ever “better” to use improper English to make a point (and/or to serve some other purpose.

Here’s an example of some lyrics from the song “Touch Me” by the Doors where an incorrect form of a pronoun was used to provide a desired rhyme:

Now, I'm gonna love you
'Till the heavens stop the rain
I'm gonna love you
'Till the stars fall from the sky
For you and I

It should be “for you and me.”

In the song “California Dreaming,” the lyrics state, “I'd be safe and warm / If I was in L.A.” when it should say, “If I were in L.A.” – but the incorrect form of the verb makes the line sound more authentic.

These are just two examples where incorrect forms were used deliberately. Poets, writers, playwrights, lyricists, essayists and any others who use language in serious and/or creative ways are going to be purposeful in how they use language – and Emily Dickinson was no exception.​

BTW: I’m not talking about typographical errors and/or what some might call “brain farts” when writers misspell or omit words inadvertently because their brains don’t catch the errors.

In the past I’ve talked about Dickinson’ used of “don’t” when proper form called for “doesn’t,” HERE.

Also, I once discussed Dickinson’s purposeful misspelling of the word “ankle,” HERE.

Just yesterday, I posted Dickinson’s poem “Alone and in a circumstance" (HERE), and it contains the line “But what redress can be / For an offense nor here nor there.”

Why didn’t she say “neither here nor there”? 

Syllables, my dear Watson.  Syllables.

Here’s another:

I’m composing a song based on Dickinson’s poem “The Soul should always stand ajar.”  In that poem, Dickinson wrote, “Depart, before the Host have slid / The Bolt unto the Door.”

Why “have” and not “has”?  I believe Dickinson used “have” purposefully.

What do you make of this?

The discussion continues HERE.